Name:     ID: 
 
    Email: 

ACG 1001 Final

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

1. 

Which of the following is not defined as Cash?
a.
checks
b.
compensating bank balances
c.
money orders
d.
cash-in-bank
 

2. 

The cash account in the depositor's ledger is a(n):
a.
asset with a debit balance
b.
asset with a credit balance
c.
liability with a debit balance
d.
liability with a credit balance
 

3. 

The debit balance in Cash Short and Over at the end of an accounting period is reported as:
a.
an expense on the income statement
b.
income on the income statement
c.
an asset on the balance sheet
d.
a liability on the balance sheet
 

4. 

EFT:
a.
means Efficient Funds Transfer
b.
can process certain cash transactions at less cost than by using the mail
c.
makes it easier to document purchase and sale transactions
d.
means Effective Funds Transfer
 

5. 

A voucher:
a.
is received from customers to explain the purpose of a payment
b.
is normally prepared in the Accounting Department
c.
system is used to control cash receipts
d.
system is an internal control procedure to verify that the assets in the ledger are the ones the company owns
 

6. 

The person who signs the check is called the:
a.
drawee
b.
drawer
c.
payee
d.
bank examiner
 

7. 

The party to whose order a check is written is called the:
a.
payer
b.
drawer
c.
drawee
d.
payee
 

8. 

The bank on which a check is drawn is called the:
a.
drawer
b.
payee
c.
drawee
d.
creditor
 

9. 

Accompanying the bank statement was a debit memorandum for bank service charges.  What entry is required in the depositor's accounts?
a.
debit Miscellaneous Administrative Expense; credit Cash
b.
debit Cash; credit Other Income
c.
debit Cash; credit Accounts Payable
d.
debit Accounts Payable; credit Cash
 

10. 

Receipts from cash sales of $7,500 were recorded incorrectly in the cash receipts journal as $5,700.  What entry is required in the depositor's accounts?
a.
debit Sales; credit Cash
b.
debit Cash; credit Accounts Receivable
c.
debit Cash; credit Sales
d.
debit Accounts Receivable; credit Cash
 

11. 

Accompanying the bank statement was a credit memorandum for a short-term note collected by the bank for the customer.  What entry is required in the depositor's accounts?
a.
debit Notes Receivable; credit Cash
b.
debit Cash; credit Miscellaneous Income
c.
debit Cash; credit Notes Receivable
d.
debit Accounts Receivable; credit Cash
 

12. 

Accompanying the bank statement was a debit memorandum for an NSF check received from a customer.  What entry is required in the depositor's accounts?
a.
debit Other Income; credit Cash
b.
debit Cash; credit Other Income
c.
debit Cash; credit Accounts Receivable
d.
debit Accounts Receivable; credit Cash
 

13. 

A check drawn by a depositor in payment of a voucher for $925 was recorded in the journal as $295. What entry is required in the depositor's accounts?
a.
debit Accounts Payable; credit Cash
b.
debit Cash; credit Accounts Receivable
c.
debit Cash; credit Accounts Payable
d.
debit Accounts Receivable; credit Cash
 

14. 

The debit recorded in the journal to reimburse the petty cash fund is to:
a.
Petty Cash
b.
Accounts Receivable
c.
Cash
d.
various accounts for which the petty cash was disbursed
 

15. 

Cash equivalents include:
a.
checks
b.
coins and currency
c.
money market accounts and commercial paper
d.
stocks and short-term bonds
 

16. 

The doomsday ratio is:
a.
current assets divided by current liabilities
b.
total assets divided by current liabilities
c.
cash and cash equivalents divided by current liabilities
d.
current liabilities as a percent of cash and cash equivalents
 

17. 

A note receivable due in 60 days is listed on the balance sheet under the caption:
a.
long-term liabilities
b.
fixed assets
c.
current assets
d.
current liabilities
 

18. 

A note receivable due in 2 years is listed on the balance sheet under the caption:
a.
current assets
b.
investments
c.
fixed assets
d.
owner's equity
 

19. 

Internal control over receivables is achieved when the employee who handles the accounting for receivables:
a.
also is involved with the operating aspects of approving credit
b.
also is involved with the operating aspects of collecting receivables
c.
is not involved with the operating aspects of approving credit
d.
also is involved with authorizing adjustments to receivables
 

20. 

The two methods of accounting for uncollectible receivables are the allowance method and the:
a.
equity method
b.
direct write-off method
c.
interest method
d.
cost method
 

21. 

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a credit balance of $800 at the end of the year (before adjustment), and an analysis of accounts in the customers ledger indicates doubtful accounts of $15,000.  Which of the following entries records the proper provision for doubtful accounts?
a.
debit Uncollectible Accounts Expense, $800; credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts, $800
b.
debit Uncollectible Accounts Expense, $14,200; credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts, $14,200
c.
debit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts, $800; credit Uncollectible Accounts Expense, $800
d.
debit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts, $15,800; credit Uncollectible Accounts Expense, $15,800
 

22. 

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a credit balance of $1,500 at the end of the year (before adjustment), and an analysis of customers' accounts indicates doubtful accounts of $17,900.  Which of the following entries records the proper provision for doubtful accounts?
a.
debit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts, $16,400; credit Uncollectible Accounts Expense, $16,400
b.
debit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts, $19,400; credit Uncollectible Accounts Expense, $19,400
c.
debit Uncollectible Accounts Expense, $19,400; credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts, $19,400
d.
debit Uncollectible Accounts Expense, $16,400; credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts, $16,400
 

23. 

What is the type of account and normal balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts?
a.
Contra asset, credit
b.
Asset, debit
c.
Asset, credit
d.
Contra asset, debit
 

24. 

If the direct write-off method of accounting for uncollectible receivables is used, what general ledger account is credited to write off a customer's account as uncollectible?
a.
Uncollectible Accounts Expense
b.
Accounts Receivable
c.
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts
d.
Interest Expense
 

25. 

In reference to a promissory note, the person who makes the promise to pay is called the:
a.
maker
b.
payee
c.
seller
d.
drawee
 

26. 

In reference to a promissory note, the person who is to receive payment is called the:
a.
maker
b.
payee
c.
seller
d.
payor
 

27. 

The due date of a 60-day note dated March 10 is:
a.
May 7
b.
May 8
c.
May 9
d.
May 10
 

28. 

A 60-day, 12% note for $15,000, dated May 1, is received from a customer on account.  The maturity value of the note is:
a.
$14,700
b.
$15,000
c.
$15,300
d.
$16,200
 

29. 

The journal entry to record a note received from a customer to apply on account is:
a.
debit Notes Receivable; credit Accounts Receivable
b.
debit Accounts Receivable; credit Notes Receivable
c.
debit Cash; credit Notes Receivable
d.
debit Notes Receivable; credit Notes Payable
 

30. 

A $6,000, 30-day, 12% note recorded on November 21 is not paid by the maker at maturity.  The journal entry to recognize this event is:
a.
debit Cash, $6,060; credit Notes Receivable, $6,060
b.
debit Accounts Receivable, $6,060; credit Notes Receivable, $6,000; Credit Interest Receivable, $60
c.
debit Notes Receivable, $6,060; credit Accounts Receivable, $6,060
d.
debit Accounts Receivable, $6,060; credit Notes Receivable, $6,000; Credit Interest Revenue, $60
 

31. 

Receivables are usually listed on the balance sheet after Cash in what order?
a.
Accounts Receivable, Notes Receivable, Interest Receivable
b.
Interest Receivable, Notes Receivable, Accounts Receivable
c.
Notes Receivable, Interest Receivable, Accounts Receivable
d.
Notes Receivable, Accounts Receivable, Interest Receivable
 

32. 

Accounts Receivable Turnover measures:
a.
how frequently during the year the accounts receivable are converted to cash
b.
the number of days outstanding
c.
the fair market value of accounts receivable
d.
the efficiency of the accounts payable function
 

33. 

The term "inventory" indicates:
a.
merchandise held for sale in the normal course of business
b.
materials in the process of production or held for production
c.
both a and b
d.
neither a nor b
 

34. 

Under a perpetual inventory system, the amount of each type of merchandise on hand is available in the:
a.
customer's ledger
b.
creditor's ledger
c.
inventory ledger
d.
merchandise inventory account
 

35. 

The inventory method that considers the inventory to be composed of the units of merchandise acquired earliest is called:
a.
first-in, first-out
b.
last-in, first-out
c.
average cost
d.
retail method
 

36. 

The inventory data for an item for November are:

Nov.  1  Inventory......... 20 units at $20
      4  Sold.............. 10 units
     10  Purchased......... 30 units at $21
     17  Sold.............. 20 units
     30  Purchased......... 10 units at $22

Using the perpetual system, costing by the first-in, first-out method, what is the cost of the merchandise inventory of 30 units on November 30?
a.
$640
b.
$610
c.
$620
d.
$630
 

37. 

The inventory data for an item for November are:

Nov.  1  Inventory......... 20 units at $20
      4  Sold.............. 10 units
     10  Purchased......... 30 units at $21
     17  Sold.............. 20 units
     30  Purchased......... 10 units at $22

Using the perpetual system, costing by the last-in, first-out method, what is the cost of the merchandise inventory of 30 units on November 30?
a.
$640
b.
$630
c.
$660
d.
$610
 

38. 

The inventory data for an item for the month of May are as follows:

May  1  Inventory......... 20 units at $50
     5  Sold.............. 15 units
    10  Purchased......... 30 units at $55
    20  Sold.............. 30 units
    29  Purchased......... 20 units at $60

What is the cost of the merchandise inventory of 25 units on May 31 by the last-in, first-out method if the periodic system is used?
a.
$1,750
b.
$1,275
c.
$1,450
d.
$1,700
 

39. 

The following lots of a particular commodity were available for sale during the year:

Beginning inventory........ 10 units at $61
First purchase............. 25 units at $63
Second purchase............ 30 units at $64
Third purchase............. 15 units at $73

The firm uses the periodic system and there are 20 units of the commodity on hand at the end of the year.  What is the amount of the inventory at the end of the year according to the average cost method?
a.
$1,300
b.
$1,305
c.
$1,415
d.
$1,236
 

40. 

The following lots of a particular commodity were available for sale during the year:

Beginning inventory........ 10 units at $60
First purchase............. 25 units at $63
Second purchase............ 30 units at $64
Third purchase............. 15 units at $70

The firm uses the periodic system and there are 20 units of the commodity on hand at the end of the year.  What is the amount of the inventory at the end of the year according to the lower of cost or market, using the first-in, first-out method, if the current replacement cost is $64 a unit?
a.
$1,200
b.
$1,230
c.
$1,280
d.
$1,370
 

41. 

During a period of consistently rising prices, the method of inventory that will result in reporting the greatest cost of merchandise sold is:
a.
fifo
b.
lifo
c.
average cost
d.
weighted average
 

42. 

If merchandise inventory is being valued at cost and the price level is consistently rising, which method of costing will yield the largest gross profit?
a.
average cost
b.
lifo
c.
fifo
d.
weighted average
 

43. 

Damaged merchandise that can be sold only at prices below cost should be valued at:
a.
net realizable value
b.
lifo
c.
fifo
d.
average
 

44. 

Merchandise Inventory is reported on the balance sheet in the section entitled:
a.
current assets
b.
fixed assets
c.
current liabilities
d.
owner's equity
 

45. 

If the estimated rate of gross profit is 40%, what is the estimated cost of the merchandise inventory on June 30, based on the following data?

June 1      Merchandise inventory
$ 75,000
June 1-30   Purchases (net)
150,000
June 1-30   Sales (net)
135,000
a.
$144,000
b.
$140,000
c.
$ 81,000
d.
$ 54,500
 

46. 

Inventory turnover:
a.
is computed by dividing average inventory by cost of merchandise sold
b.
measures the relationship between the volume of goods sold and amount of inventory carried
c.
increases the risk of loss from damaged merchandise
d.
is computed by dividing the beginning inventory plus the ending inventory by two
 

47. 

A building with an appraisal value of $157,000 is made available at an offer price of $152,000.  The purchaser acquires the property for $50,000 in cash, a 90-day note payable for $40,000, and a mortgage amounting to $60,000. The cost basis recorded in the buyer's accounting records to recognize this purchase is:
a.
$157,000
b.
$152,000
c.
$100,000
d.
$150,000
 

48. 

What is the journal entry a company would record when it acquires equipment and issues a promissory note for the entire purchase price?
a.
debit Purchases; credit Notes Payable
b.
debit Equipment; credit Cash
c.
debit Equipment; credit Accounts Payable
d.
debit Equipment; credit Notes Payable
 

49. 

A machine with a cost of $65,000 has an estimated residual value of $5,000 and an estimated life of 5 years or 15,000 hours. It is to be depreciated by the units-of-production method.  What is the amount of depreciation for the second full year, during which the machine was used 5,000 hours?
a.
$8,000
b.
$20,000
c.
$12,000
d.
$21,667
 

50. 

Equipment purchased May 1, 200X, for $90,000 has an estimated residual value of $6,000 and an estimated life of 4 years. What is the amount of depreciation for the second full year, using the declining-balance method at double the straight-line rate?
a.
$30,000
b.
$28,000
c.
$22,500
d.
$21,000
 

51. 

Expenditures that increase operating efficiency or capacity for the remaining useful life of fixed assets are called:
a.
current expenditures
b.
revenue expenditures
c.
ordinary maintenance
d.
betterments
 

52. 

When a company exchanges machinery and receives a trade-in allowance greater than the book value, this transaction would be recorded with the following entry:
a.
debit Machinery and Accumulated Depreciation; credit Machinery, Cash, and Gain on Disposal
b.
debit Machinery and Accumulated Depreciation; credit Machinery and Cash
c.
debit Cash and Machinery; credit Accumulated Depreciation
d.
debit Cash and Machinery; credit Accumulated Depreciation and Machinery
 

53. 

All leases are classified as either:
a.
capital leases or long-term leases
b.
capital leases or operating leases
c.
operating leases or current leases
d.
long-term leases or current leases
 

54. 

The journal entry for recording an operating lease payment would:
a.
be a memo entry only
b.
debit the fixed asset and credit Cash
c.
debit an expense and credit Cash
d.
debit a liability and credit Cash
 

55. 

Which one of the following is not an internal control procedure for fixed assets?
a.
ensuring that fixed assets are acquired at the lowest possible costs
b.
training employees to properly operate fixed assets
c.
tagging assets as they are acquired
d.
recording assets in the subsidiary ledger only at year end
 

56. 

The accumulated depletion account is:
a.
an expense account
b.
an intangible asset account
c.
reported on the income statement as other expense
d.
reported on the balance sheet as a deduction from the cost of the mineral deposit
 

57. 

Which of the following is classified as an intangible asset on the balance sheet?
a.
Goodwill
b.
Buildings
c.
Machinery
d.
Land Held for Future Use
 

58. 

Patents are reported on the balance sheet in the:
a.
intangible assets section
b.
current assets section
c.
property, plant, and equipment section
d.
investments section
 

59. 

Fixed assets are ordinarily presented in the balance sheet:
a.
at current market values
b.
at replacement costs
c.
at cost less accumulated depreciation
d.
in a separate section along with intangible assets
 

60. 

All thing being equal except the ratio of fixed assets to long-term liabilities, a lender would prefer to lend to a company whose ratio is:
a.
1.0
b.
2.0
c.
3.0
d.
3.5
 



 
Submit          Reset Help